The problem looks very hard. I have only this silly method, and have not yet got the number. Let P(n,k) be the probability of open all n safes with k keys. We need P(10,3). P(n,1) = 1/n. P(n,2) = [2*(n-2)/C(n,2)]*P(n-2,1) + [C(n-2,2)/C(n,2)]*P(n-2,2) P(n,3) = [3*(n-3)/C(n,3)]*P(n-3,1) + [3*C(n-3,2)/C(n,3)]*P(n-3,2) + [C(n-3,3)/C(n,3)]*P(n-3,3) From these recursive relations we should be able to get P(10,3). Need to write a program to calculate the number. |
能开的情况是最多有三个轮换,并且每个轮换里都有一个被抓出来。这样是能直接计算出来的。可惜我对这些组合关系不熟悉,要做的话,又要查书,几乎每步都要仔细验证,非一时半会可以做好。 也许野菜花有简单办法吧。 不管怎样,这题目实在有意思。 |
In the original problem, in stead of 10 and 3, n and k are used just as you did in your solution. In the solution i know, comjecture the answer first (the answer looks very simple), then use the induction. Don't hurry, take your time, otherwise you guys would feel bored again. |
Let q(n,k) be the probability that not all safes can be opened, i.e., q(n,k)=1-p(n,k). Then in the total C(n,k) n! combinations, there are C(n,k) n!q(n,k) combinations that not all safes can be opened. For 1<=i <=n-k, there are C(n,i)i!(1-q(n-i, k))C(n-i, k) (n-i)! cases in which exactly i safes can not be opened (these i safes form some cycles...). Therefore, we have: C(n,k) n!q(n,k)=C(n,1)1!(1-q(n-1, k))C(n-1, k)(n-1)!+....+C(n, n-k)(1-q(k,k))C(k,k)k!. Now we are left to prove by induction on n-k that q(n,k)=1-k/n, which can be done easily. |
It is k/n. I did use induction (and still hate it!) There should be a more beautiful proof for such a beautiful result. I tried 置换群 and it does not work (for me) either. |
C(n,k) n!q(n,k)=C(n,1)1!(1-q(n-1, k))C(n-1, k)(n-1)!+....+C(n, n-k)(n-k)!(1-q(k,k))C(k,k)k!.
I did use 置换群, but not much. |
Still let P(n,k) be the probability of opening all n boxes given k keys. We first open one box and get another key. The probability of getting a new key (not already have) is (n-k)/n. So we have this simple recursive relation: P(n,k) = k/n * P(n-1,k-1) + (n-k)/n * P(n-1,k) From this and a double induction on n and k (DOUBLE! ) we get P(n,k) = k/n. |
To save yourself from double induction, you can try it on n+k. Anyway, it is not important. |
I thought this question could last a little longer. It seems I could not find any problems which can beat you |
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